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In article <093.50.19.05.675525000@srcbs.org>, basicallyblues says...

[snip]
>Interestingly at Acts 1:10 Luke doe snot use "anabaino" but uses
>"pereuomai"! Why did Jesus not use this word at John 3:13??? That would
>have conveyed your point much more clearly!

It would have, but the author was under no _obligation_ to use it. That is where
you argument falls apart like the house of cards that it is.

In fact, you got the word wrong. IT is POREUOMAI, not PEREUOMAI. And it simply
means 'going', NOT 'going up'. ANABAINW is the norml word for 'going up'. So the
author Revelation actually made the better choice of word than Luke did, for
'going up'.

But of course, Luke didn't _have_ to use ANABAINW in Acts 1:10. For the fact
that it was upward motion was not relevant. But in the Revelations passage, it
is central. SO no, POREYOMAI would have been a very poor choice of word.

The fact that you propose such a poor choice of word shows that you are over
your head again. You do not know Koine greek _nearly_ well enough to make these
kinds of judgments concerning the author's choice of words.


--
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Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)

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