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Juuitchan
> It doesn't make sense to me that Jesus could die for my sins. My logic
> is the same logic that says that if I need a root canal, you can't go
> to the dentist in my place.
The problem of sin and the problem of bad teeth aren't the same problem.
The problem of satisfying God's justice isn't the same as solving a
dental problem. One is forensic, the other is physical.
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In article <093.50.19.05.328356000@srcbs.org>, ResLight says...
>
>
>
>"Matthew Johnson"
>news:091.34.08.05.198799000@srcbs.org...
>>
>>
>> In article <090.53.09.05.929843000@srcbs.org>, basicallyblues says...
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>Matthew Johnson makes an inane statement:
>>>
>>>>But JWs clearly equivocate on what "Jesus as Lord" means. Whereas you
>>>>and I
>>>>should agree: it means Lord GOD
>
>I am not with the JWs,
Theologically, you are. So what good does it do you to be "not with" them in
some other sense? None that I can see.
> but Jesus as Lord means that Jesus is the Lord made
>so by the only true God,
No, that is not what it means.
> not that Jesus is the God who made him "Lord."
Yes, it is. That is WHY it is so important to translate John 1:1 correctly, as:
In the beginning was the Word [indicating co-eternity]
And the Word was with God [indicating distinction]
And the Word WAS God [indicating idenity]
>Acts 2:36 - "Let all the house of Israel therefore know assuredly that God
>has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified."
>
>His being made Lord and Christ by his God does not make him the God who made
>him Lord and Christ.
But you are equivocating on the sense of 'made'. For clearly 'made' in Acts 2:36
does NOT refer to the Word, but to the _man_ Jesus Christ. But as man, He really
does have an origin, and as _man_ He really was _made_ "Lord and Christ". But He
was, by His divine nature, Lord already from all eternity. THAT is the
implication of the correct translation of John 1:1
[snip]
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Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)
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